Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
Last Updated: 03.07.2025 00:49
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Minnesota Vikings News and Links: Another Day OF OTAs! - Daily Norseman
You'll usually find your answer there.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.
Thunder-Pacers: Jalen Williams scores 40 as OKC wins Game 5 of NBA finals - Al Jazeera
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
There's no rule.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Trump's huge bill includes immediate gift for layoff-ridden Bay Area tech - SFGATE
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.